20 free questions split across the 5 domains of NHA’s CPT test plan by exam weight. Tap an answer to check it, see your score by domain, and read why each wrong option is wrong. No sign-up.
20 questions. Tap an answer to check it, or open the explanation under each one.
Question 1 · Safety and Compliance
A coworker tells a phlebotomist that adding a splash of ammonia-based glass cleaner to diluted bleach makes a stronger wipe for the draw chairs. How should she respond?
ADecline, because the mixture releases a toxic gas
BAgree, if she rinses the chairs with water afterward
CAgree, if the mixture is used within one hour
DAgree, but only for chairs used by isolation patients
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Decline, because the mixture releases a toxic gas
Bleach and ammonia react to form chloramine gas, which irritates the eyes and lungs; cleaning products are used one at a time as their labels direct and are never combined.
Why the other options are wrong
B. Agree, if she rinses the chairs with water afterward: Rinsing afterward does not undo the gas released while mixing.
C. Agree, if the mixture is used within one hour: A time limit does not stop the gas, which forms as soon as they are mixed.
D. Agree, but only for chairs used by isolation patients: The type of patient does not change the reaction between bleach and ammonia.
Which abbreviations may a phlebotomist use when documenting in the patient record?
AAny she uses in her own notes
BAny common texting shortcut
CNone; all abbreviations are banned in records
DOnly those approved by the facility
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Only those approved by the facility
Facility-approved, widely accepted abbreviations keep the record readable by everyone on the care team; personal shorthand and texting abbreviations can be misread.
Why the other options are wrong
A. Any she uses in her own notes: Personal shorthand can be misread by others.
B. Any common texting shortcut: Texting shortcuts are not approved medical abbreviations.
C. None; all abbreviations are banned in records: Approved abbreviations are allowed; unapproved ones are not.
A phlebotomist printing labels on a computer-on-wheels in a patient's room is paged to the emergency department. The patient's electronic record is open on the screen. Which action best protects it?
ALeave it open, since only the patient is present
BAsk the patient to keep an eye on the cart
CLock the workstation before leaving the room
DPush the cart to the wall with the screen inward
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Lock the workstation before leaving the room
Workstations that access electronic PHI need physical safeguards that restrict access to authorized users (45 CFR 164.310(c)); locking the session before walking away does that.
Why the other options are wrong
A. Leave it open, since only the patient is present: Visitors or other staff could view or use the open record.
B. Ask the patient to keep an eye on the cart: A patient is not an authorized user and cannot secure the record.
D. Push the cart to the wall with the screen inward: Anyone who turns the cart around can still use the open record.
A patient's arm bleeds through the gauze the phlebotomist is pressing on a cut from a broken tube. What should she do with the soaked gauze?
ARemove it and press a clean pad on the cut
BRemove it to look at the wound
CRinse it with saline and reapply it
DLeave it and add more gauze on top
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Leave it and add more gauze on top
If blood seeps through the dressing, the first layer stays in place and another is added on top while pressure continues; removing it tears away the forming clot.
Why the other options are wrong
A. Remove it and press a clean pad on the cut: Pulling off the soaked gauze disturbs the clot that has started to form.
B. Remove it to look at the wound: Peeking at the wound interrupts pressure and restarts the bleeding.
C. Rinse it with saline and reapply it: Rinsing and reapplying means removing it, which disrupts the clot.
A hospital laboratory uses hazardous chemicals on a non-production basis. Under OSHA's laboratory standard, which written plan must the employer develop and carry out?
AQuality control plan
BChemical hygiene plan
CSpecimen procedure manual
DEmergency action plan
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Chemical hygiene plan
OSHA's standard for laboratory use of hazardous chemicals requires a written chemical hygiene plan that sets out procedures, equipment, PPE and work practices to protect lab workers.
Why the other options are wrong
A. Quality control plan: Quality control plans address test accuracy, not chemical exposure.
C. Specimen procedure manual: The procedure manual is a CLIA testing requirement, not OSHA's chemical plan.
D. Emergency action plan: An emergency action plan covers evacuations and alarms, not the lab chemical standard.
A 17-year-old shows the outpatient lab a court decree declaring her emancipated. She came alone with an order for a lipid panel. Whose consent does the draw need?
AHer ordering clinician's, on the order
BThe issuing court's, by a new order
CA parent's, obtained by phone first
DHer own, as an emancipated minor
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Her own, as an emancipated minor
Emancipated minors are considered legally capable and can consent to their own medical treatment (Merck Manual).
Why the other options are wrong
A. Her ordering clinician's, on the order: An order authorizes the test; it is not consent.
B. The issuing court's, by a new order: A court does not consent to individual tests.
C. A parent's, obtained by phone first: Emancipation removes the need for a parent's consent.
To give informed consent for an invasive procedure, a patient must understand several things. Which of these is one of them?
AThe facility's accreditation status
BThe name of the lab that will run her tests
CWhat could happen if she declines the treatment
DThe room where the procedure will take place
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. What could happen if she declines the treatment
Informed consent requires that the patient understand her current status, including its likely course without treatment, the options with their benefits and harms, usually the clinician's recommendation, and the uncertainties (Merck Manual).
Why the other options are wrong
A. The facility's accreditation status: Accreditation is not an element of informed consent.
B. The name of the lab that will run her tests: Which lab runs the tests is not an informed consent element.
D. The room where the procedure will take place: Room assignment is a scheduling detail, not a consent element.
A walk-in patient gives the phlebotomist a requisition showing her name, date of birth and the tests, but no ordering provider or contact information. Her provider's office is closed for lunch. What is the best action?
ADraw now and list the lab director as the requester
BHold the draw until the ordering provider is identified
CDraw now and leave the provider field blank for later
DDraw now and write in her primary care provider's name
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Hold the draw until the ordering provider is identified
Testing needs a request from an authorized person, and the requisition must identify that person, with a contact for imminently life-threatening results (42 CFR 493.1241(a), (c)(1)). The phlebotomist waits or reschedules per policy rather than filling in a provider.
Why the other options are wrong
A. Draw now and list the lab director as the requester: The lab director did not order these tests.
C. Draw now and leave the provider field blank for later: Without an identified requester there is no valid order, and no one to call with urgent results.
D. Draw now and write in her primary care provider's name: The phlebotomist cannot assume who ordered the tests.
A lab manager is clearing out old binders. Under CLIA, for at least how long must the specimen refrigerator's daily temperature logs be kept?
A6 months
B1 year
C2 years
D10 years
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. 2 years
CLIA requires records of all analytic systems activities in 42 CFR 493.1252 through 493.1289 to be kept at least 2 years (42 CFR 493.1105(a)(3)), and 493.1252(b) requires storage conditions such as temperature to be monitored and documented.
Why the other options are wrong
A. 6 months: Six months is shorter than the CLIA minimum for these records.
B. 1 year: One year is shorter than the CLIA minimum for these records.
D. 10 years: Ten years is the CLIA period for pathology test reports, not storage logs.
Under CLIA, a laboratory's written labeling procedure must call for the patient's name or a unique identifier and, when appropriate, which other item?
AThe patient's diagnosis
BThe ordering office's phone
CThe insurance carrier
DThe specimen source
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. The specimen source
42 CFR 493.1242(a)(3) requires written procedures for specimen labeling, including patient name or unique patient identifier and, when appropriate, specimen source.
Why the other options are wrong
A. The patient's diagnosis: Diagnosis is not part of the CLIA labeling requirement.
B. The ordering office's phone: Provider contact details go on the requisition.
C. The insurance carrier: Insurance is not part of the CLIA labeling requirement.
Croatian national recommendations allow tubes to be labeled after the draw only if the patient is still seated in front of the phlebotomist. Why?
AThe tubes must be mixed before labels go on
BThe barcode needs body heat to print
COtherwise a tube may end up unlabeled
DThe patient must sign each tube
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Otherwise a tube may end up unlabeled
Nikolac et al. say that if labeling follows venipuncture it must be done in front of the patient, who is still sitting there; otherwise a tube may be left unlabeled.
Why the other options are wrong
A. The tubes must be mixed before labels go on: Mixing and labeling are separate steps; this rule is about identification.
B. The barcode needs body heat to print: Label printing does not depend on the patient.
D. The patient must sign each tube: Patients do not sign specimen tubes.
How should the phlebotomist make the incision for a dermal puncture?
AIn two light strokes at one spot
BWith a twist to widen the small cut
CSlowly, easing in until blood shows
DIn one quick, continuous stroke
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. In one quick, continuous stroke
WHO says to puncture the skin with one quick, continuous and deliberate stroke to get good flow and avoid a repeat puncture; the retractable device is triggered per the manufacturer (Croatian recommendation 14).
Why the other options are wrong
A. In two light strokes at one spot: A site is punctured only once; repeated punctures raise the risk of contamination and infection.
B. With a twist to widen the small cut: Twisting is not part of the described technique and only adds tissue damage.
C. Slowly, easing in until blood shows: A slow entry is not the described technique and may give poor flow that needs a repeat puncture.
A physician office patient has orders for an aPTT (light blue-top) and a hemoglobin A1c (lavender-top). The phlebotomist uses a straight needle and tube holder. What is the correct sequence?
AGold discard, light blue, then lavender
BLight blue, then lavender
CLavender, then light blue
DEither order, since both tubes contain anticoagulant
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Light blue, then lavender
Citrate precedes EDTA in the CLSI order. With a straight needle, a discard tube is not needed for routine coagulation tests.
Why the other options are wrong
A. Gold discard, light blue, then lavender: No discard is needed with a straight needle, and a clot-activator tube must not precede citrate.
C. Lavender, then light blue: EDTA filled first could be carried into the coagulation tube.
D. Either order, since both tubes contain anticoagulant: Both tubes being anticoagulated does not remove the order of draw.
A blood culture order notes that fungemia due to yeast is suspected. Under IDSA/ASM guidance, which bottle combination may the lab ask for in at least one set?
AOne AFB-specific vial
BTwo anaerobic bottles
CTwo aerobic bottles
DOne anaerobic bottle only
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Two aerobic bottles
Because yeast are highly aerobic, IDSA/ASM says it may be prudent to inoculate at least one specimen into two aerobic vials instead of the usual aerobic and anaerobic pair. The phlebotomist follows the lab's policy for the order.
Why the other options are wrong
A. One AFB-specific vial: AFB vials are for mycobacteria, not routine yeast cultures.
B. Two anaerobic bottles: Yeast are highly aerobic, so anaerobic bottles are the wrong choice.
D. One anaerobic bottle only: A single anaerobic bottle suits yeast least and is less than a set.
Blood is drawn by syringe for blood cultures and a lavender-top tube. Using a transfer device, which is filled first?
AThe culture bottles
BThe lavender-top (EDTA) tube
CWhichever is closest
DBoth at the same time
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. The culture bottles
The order of draw is the same whether blood is collected by vacuum tube or syringe (Korean consensus), so the culture bottles are filled before the EDTA tube.
Why the other options are wrong
B. The lavender-top (EDTA) tube: EDTA comes after cultures in the order of draw.
C. Whichever is closest: The order is fixed, not based on convenience.
D. Both at the same time: Bottles and tubes are filled one at a time in order.
On her first day in a hospital lab, a phlebotomist hears a technologist call a result a "panic value." Which description fits that term?
AA result showing a possibly life-threatening state
BA result reported after the expected turnaround time
CA result from a test the provider ordered STAT
DA result just outside the reference interval
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. A result showing a possibly life-threatening state
Panic, alert or critical values are results that point to an imminently life-threatening condition; CLIA requires the lab to alert the person who ordered the test immediately (42 CFR 493.1291(g)), and CDC describes them as results that need immediate treatment or evaluation by the physician.
Why the other options are wrong
B. A result reported after the expected turnaround time: A late result is a delay, not a panic value.
C. A result from a test the provider ordered STAT: STAT describes the priority of the order, not the meaning of the result.
D. A result just outside the reference interval: Most out-of-range results are abnormal but not dangerous.
A clinic's example policy calls a POC glucose below 50 mg/dL critical and says to repeat a critical result once before calling. The first result is 47 mg/dL and the repeat is 46 mg/dL. What should the phlebotomist do?
AKeep repeating until a value of 50 or more appears
BCall the provider now with the confirmed value
CWait for a venous specimen before telling anyone
DReport only the first value as a routine result
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Call the provider now with the confirmed value
Both results are below the site's 50 mg/dL limit, so the confirmed critical value is called to the provider at once and documented with when and to whom it was reported (CDC Ready? Set? Test!). The 50 mg/dL cutoff is an example; low glucose limits on U.S. hospital lists range from 40 to 70 mg/dL (Osher and Kost 2026).
Why the other options are wrong
A. Keep repeating until a value of 50 or more appears: Retesting until a normal number appears is choosing a result, not confirming one.
C. Wait for a venous specimen before telling anyone: The confirmed critical value is reported now; any further testing is the provider's decision.
D. Report only the first value as a routine result: Both values are below the limit, so the result is reported as critical, not routinely.
While filing a reference lab's printed report, a phlebotomist at a hospital outpatient lab sees she keyed a hemoglobin of 8.1 g/dL into the LIS; the report reads 11.8 g/dL. The wrong value has already posted to the provider's inbox. What should she do?
ADelete the result and ask the lab for a redraw
BLeave 8.1 in place since the report is on file
CHave a corrected report issued and the provider told
DEdit the LIS value to 11.8 and close the entry
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Have a corrected report issued and the provider told
CLIA covers results manually transcribed from referral laboratories (42 CFR 493.1291(a)(3)). When a reporting error is found, the lab must promptly notify the person who ordered the test, issue a corrected report and keep both the original and the corrected report (493.1291(k)).
Why the other options are wrong
A. Delete the result and ask the lab for a redraw: Deleting erases a reported value, and the correct result already exists on the reference lab's report.
B. Leave 8.1 in place since the report is on file: The posted value is wrong and could lead to wrong care, so it must be corrected.
D. Edit the LIS value to 11.8 and close the entry: A silent overwrite leaves the provider unaware that a wrong value was reported and loses the original report.
The CPT exam has 120 multiple-choice questions in 2 hours; 100 are scored. This test uses the same domain split, scaled to 20 questions. Practice questions, flashcards and lessons were created for Phlebotomy Tech Prep: CPT. They are not actual exam questions and do not come from NHA. Questions held back for the app’s mock exams and diagnostic are never published here.
Domain
Scored on the exam
Share
In this test
Safety and Compliance
26
26%
5
Patient Preparation
20
20%
4
Routine Blood Collections
28
28%
6
Special Collections
12
12%
2
Processing
14
14%
3
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